I have read many posts with references to various webpages that purport to show that the Apostle Paul was Torah observant after his conversion to Christ. They site as examples his taking of a vow and shaving his head, going to synagogue on Sabbath and preaching Christ, his paying the expenses for others in Jerusalem as part of a vow. But do these really say that, as a lifestyle, he remained “under law”?
I submit, in light of Paul’s dispute with Peter concerning the keeping of the law, and his letter to the churches of Galatia, that Paul was NOT Torah observant after his conversion. He was under law to Christ, but not under law of Moses.
So why would Paul do all those things that were Torah observant? I think we see that he did these things either on his way to, or in Jerusalem, the location of the temple and the home of Judaism. Why? I believe these Scriptures from Paul will explain:
1Cr 9:19 NKJV – For though I am free from all men, I have made myself a servant to all, that I might win the more;
1Cr 9:20 NKJV – and to the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might win Jews; to those who are under the law, as under the law, that I might win those who are under the law;
1Cr 9:21 NKJV – to those who are without law, as without law (not being without law toward God, but under law toward Christ), that I might win those who are without law;
1Cr 9:22 NKJV – to the weak I became as weak, that I might win the weak. I have become all things to all men, that I might by all means save some.
1Cr 9:23 NKJV – Now this I do for the gospel’s sake, that I may be partaker of it with you.
We cannot say he was Torah observant for any other reason other than to save his fellow Jews. He observed the “torah” of Jesus: “Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, with all thy soul, and with all thy strength. And thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself.”